اختبارات سابقة 2


هذه الصفحة مخصصة لعرض نماذج أسئلة من امتحانات سابقة لمقرر تحليل سوائل الجسم يمكن الاستفادة منها اثناء الأستذكار ومراجعات ما قبل الامتحان.

Choose the right answer from the following choices:

1. The substance that is basic to the very existence of the body is the simplest substance known as ……………

a) Urine

b) Water

c) Milk

d) Semen

2. The basis of all fluids is ……………

a) Urine

b) Water

c) Milk

d) Semen

3. Body fluids include ……………

a) Blood

b) Earwax

c) Tears

d) All of the previous

4. …………… is one of the oldest laboratory procedures in the practice of medicine.

a) Urinalysis

b) Semen analysis

c) CSF analysis

d) All of the previous

5. Urinalysis provides information about ……………

a) Kidney

b) Metabolic disorders

c) Systemic disorders

d) All of the previous

6. Urinalysis can reveal diseases that have gone unnoticed because they do not produce striking symptoms as ……………

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Kidney failure

c) Chronic UTI

d) All of the previous

7. The renal hilus is the area through which the …………… enters the kidney.

a) Renal vein

b) Ureter

c) Renal artery

d) All of the previous

8. The internal structure of the kidney consists of ……………….

a) Cortex

b) Medulla

c) Renal pelvis

d) All of the previous

9. The …………… is the main functional unit of the kidney.

a) Cortex

b) Medulla

c) nephron

d) All of the previous

10. When blood pressure falls, …………… is secreted (from kidney) in the blood.

a) Renin

b) Angiotensin I

c) Angiotensin II

d) ACE

11. ACE is secreted from ……………

a) Kidney

b) Pituitary

c) Lung

d) None of the previous

12. Angiotensin II corrects renal blood flow by dilating the …………….

a) Efferent

b) Afferent

c) Aldosterone

d) None of the previous

13. The aldosterone hormone is released from the …………….

a) Adrenal gland

b) Pituitary gland

c) Lung

d) None of the previous

14. The ADH is released from the …………….

a) Adrenal gland

b) Pituitary gland

c) Lung

d) None of the previous

15. There are approximately 1 million or slightly more …………….in each kidney.

a) Glomerulus

b) Proximal convoluted tubule

c) Loop of henle

d) All of the previous

16. Each nephron empties into a …………. to which other nephrons are connected.

a) Renal pelvis

b) Ureter

c) Urinary bladder

d) None of the previous

17. …………….  arterioles carry blood to the glomeruli.

a) Afferent

b) Efferent

c) Renal

d) None of the previous

18. The blood leaves the glomeruli via the ……………. arterioles.

a) Afferent

b) Efferent

c) Renal

d) None of the previous

19. …………. is formed between the capsule and the glomerulus.

a) Bowman’s membrane

b) Bowman’s capsule

c) Bowman’s arteriole

d) None of the previous

20. The …………. capillaries surround the renal tubules.

a) Pretubular

b) Peritubular

c) Postubular

d) None of the previous

21. The mechanism of urine formation include the followings except ………..…….

a) Glomerular filtration

b) Tubular reabsorption

c) Tubular secretion

d) None of the previous

22. In routine urine analysis, ………. container should be used for urine collection.

a) Clean

b) Dry

c) Disposable

d) All of the previous

23. Urine samples that are to be cultured must be collected in ………. containers.

a) Clean

b) Dry

c) Reusable

d) None of the previous

24. Urine for diagnosis of prostatitis should be collected by ………. method.

a) Clean-catch

b) Clean-voided midstream

c) Catheterization

d) None of the previous

25. …………. is usually the method of choice for obtaining urine specimens.

a) Clean- catch

b) Three-glass collections

c) Catheterization

d) Suprapubic aspiration

26. Ideally, the specimen for routine urinalysis should be examined within ……….  hours of collection.

a) One

b) Two

c) Immediately

d) None of the previous

27. As  urine preservative, toluene is used in ………………….. concentration.

a) 1 drop/30 mL

b) 2 mL/100 mL

c) One small crystal

d) None of the previous

28. As  urine preservative, formalin is used in ………………….. concentration.

a) 1 drop/30 mL

b) 2 mL/100 mL

c) One small crystal

d) None of the previous

29. As  urine preservative, thymol is used in ………………….. concentration.

a) 1 drop/30 mL

b) 2 mL/100 mL

c) One small crystal

d) None of the previous

30. As urine preservative,………………….. prevents bacterial growth, but it is not recommended because it changes the characteristics of the cellular sediments.

a) Chlorhexidine

b) Chloroform

c) Boric acid

d) None of the previous

31. As urine preservative,………………….. preserves formed elements but interferes with the pH reading.

a) Chlorhexidine

b) Chloroform

c) Boric acid

d) None of the previous

32. As urine preservative,………………….. prevents bacterial growth and is useful as a glucose preservative.

a) Chlorhexidine

b) Chloroform

c) Boric acid

d) None of the previous

33. ………………….. is the preservative used in tubes used to preserve urine for culture and sensitivity.

a) Chlorhexidine

b) Chloroform

c) Boric acid

d) None of the previous

34. …………sample is usually sufficient for the most of urinary screening tests.

a) Random

b) First-morning

c) Fasting

d) None of the previous

35. …………sample is more concentrated and is usually the specimen of choice.

a) Random

b) First-morning

c) Fasting

d) None of the previous

36. ………… sample is recommended for glucose monitoring.

a) Random

b) First-morning

c) Fasting

d) None of the previous

37. ………… sample is used because urinary substances are excreted in varying concentrations throughout the day.

a) Random

b) First-morning

c) Fasting

d) None of the previous

38. The routine urinalysis includes the followings examinations except:

a) Physical

b) Chemical

c) Microscopic

d) Culture and sensetivity

39. The color of urine is one of the parameters of …………… examination.

a) Physical

b) Macroscopic

c) Gross

d) All of the previous

40. The normal color of urine is straw yellow due to the presence of ……………

a) Urochrome

b) Urobilin

c) Uroerythrin

d) All of the previous

41. Obstructive jaundice is usually associated with ………….. colored urine.

a) Very pale

b) Yellow-brown

c) Red

d) Brown

42. Myoglobinuria is usually associated with ………….. colored urine.

a) Very pale

b) Yellow-brown

c) Red

d) Brown

43. Porphyrinuria is usually associated with ………….. colored urine.

a) Very pale

b) Yellow-brown

c) Red

d) Brown

44. Met-hemoglobinuria is usually associated with ………….. colored urine.

a) Very pale

b) Yellow-brown

c) Red

d) Brown

45. Diabetes insipidus is usually associated with ………….. colored urine.

a) Very pale

b) Yellow-brown

c) Red

d) Brown

46. In malignant melanoma, the urine turn black when ……….

a) Freshly voided

b) Exposed to light

c) Alkalinized

d) On standing

47. Orange urine usually associate the use of some drugs as …………….

a) Antibiotics

b) Phenolphthalein

c) Pyridium

d) Methylene blue

48. Factors that influence urine volume include:

a) Fluid intake

b) Fluid loss from non-renal source

c) Variation in ADH

d) All of the previous

49. An increase in the excretion of urine during night is termed ………….

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

50. An increase in daily urine volume is termed ………….

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

51. The complete suppression of urine formation is termed ………….

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

52. Decrease in daily urine volume is termed ………….

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

53. Renal ischemia is usually associated with …………..

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

54. Hypoaldosternoism is usually associated with …………..

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

55. Loss of urine formation mechanism is usually associated with …………..

a) Nocturia

b) Oliguria

c) Polyuria

d) Anuria

56. ………….. foam indicates the presence of large amount of protein in urine.

a) Colorless

b) White

c) Yellow

d) Red

57. ………….. foam indicates the presence of large amount of bilirubin in urine.

a) Colorless

b) White

c) Yellow

d) Red

58. ………….. foam indicates the presence of large amount of urobilin in urine.

a) Colorless

b) White

c) Yellow

d) Red

59. ……….. urine resulted from the presence of leukocytes.

a) Cloudy

b) Hazy

c) Smoky

d) Milky

60. ……….. urine resulted from the presence of mucus.

a) Cloudy

b) Hazy

c) Smoky

d) Milky

61. ……….. urine resulted from the presence of RBCs.

a) Cloudy

b) Hazy

c) Smoky

d) Milky

62. ……….. urine resulted from the presence of chyle.

a) Cloudy

b) Hazy

c) Smoky

d) Milky

63. ……….. odor is due to ketones.

a) Fruity

b) Pungent

c) Offensive

d) Mousy

64. ……….. odor is due to ammonia.

a) Fruity

b) Pungent

c) Offensive

d) Mousy

65. ……….. odor is due to pus.

a) Fruity

b) Pungent

c) Offensive

d) Mousy

66. ……….. odor is due to PKU.

a) Fruity

b) Pungent

c) Offensive

d) Mousy

67. Diabetes insipidus is usually associated with …………..

a) Hyposthenuria

b) Isosthenuria

c) Hypersthenuria

d) Normosthenuria

68. Chronic renal diseases are usually associated with …………..

a) Hyposthenuria

b) Isosthenuria

c) Hypersthenuria

d) Normosthenuria

69. Proteinuria is usually associated with …………..

a) Hyposthenuria

b) Isosthenuria

c) Hypersthenuria

d) Normosthenuria

70. The routine urinalysis includes ………….. chemical examination.

a) Quantitative

b) Qualitative

c) Semiqualitative

d) None of the previous

71. Completion of urine chemistry using reagent test strips occurs in …… minutes.

a) Less than one

b) One

c) Two

d) None of the previous

72. The container of reagent strips should be kept in ………...

a) The refrigerator

b) Temperatures over 30C

c) Direct sunlight

d) None of the previous

73. During chemical examination, completely dip the strip in ………… urine.

a) Fresh

b) Well-mixed

c) Uncentrifuged

d) All of the previous

74. Kidneys and …...…are the major regulators of the acid-base content in the body.

a) Liver

b) Lungs

c) Intestine

d) Spleen

75. The pH of normal random urine samples can range from ……………

a) 4 to 7

b) 6 to 9.5

c) 4.5 to 8.0

d) None of the previous

76. A urine pH of 9 is associated with …………..

a) UTI

b) Respiratory alkalosis

c) Metabolic alkalosis

d) None of the previous

77. The use of Mandelamine is associated with…………..

a) Normal pH

b) Acidic urine

c) Alkaline urine

d) None of the previous

78. High-meat diet is associated with…………..

a) Normal pH

b) Acidic urine

c) Alkaline urine

d) None of the previous



79. UTI is usually associated with…………..

a) Normal pH

b) Acidic urine

c) Alkaline urine

d) None of the previous

80. Vegetarians are usually associated with…………..

a) Normal pH

b) Acidic urine

c) Alkaline urine

d) None of the previous

81. Spoiled samples are usually associated with …………..

a) Normal pH

b) Acidic urine

c) Alkaline urine

d) None of the previous

82. Renal threshold for …………… is approximately 160 to 180 mg/dL.

a) Glucose

b) Protein

c) Sodium

d) None of the previous

83. For purposes of diabetes monitoring, specimens are usually ……………

a) Fasting

b) First morning

c) 2hr postprandial

d) None of the previous

84. Pancreatitis is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

85. Pancreatic cancer is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

86. Acromegaly is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

87. Cushing syndrome is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

88. Hyperthyroidism is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

89. Severe stress is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

90. Gestational diabetes is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

91. ESRD is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

92. Fanconi syndrome is usually associated with ………….

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

93. Gestational diabetes is usually ………………

a) Due to insulin resistance

b) Due to pregnancy hormones

c) Appear at 6th month

d) All of the previous

94. Eating a meal with high carbohydrate content is usually associated with ………

a) Glycosuria with hyperglycemia

b) Glycosuria without hyperglycemia

c) Physiological glycosuria

d) None of the previous

95. Urinary proteins include …………………..

a) Albumin

b) Microglobulins

c) Tamm- Horsfall protein

d) All of the previous

96. ………………. is the major serum protein found in urine.

a) Albumin

b) Microglobulins

c) Tamm- Horsfall protein

d) All of the previous

97. Clinical proteinuria is indicated at protein concentration  .

a) 30 mg/L

b) 30 g/dL

c) 30 mg/dL

d) None of the previous

98. Factors affecting urinary pH are:

a) Acid-base content of the blood.

b) Patient’s renal function.

c) Presence of a urinary tract infection.

d) All of the previous.

Complete the following sentences with the suitable word (s):

1. The normal color of urine is ………….. due to the presence of uropigments.

2. Normal urine aspect is …………...

3. Fresh normal urine has a faint aromatic odor due to the presence …………...

4. The normal volume of urine in adult is ………….. mL/day.

5. The normal volume of urine in children is ………….. mL/day.

6. The abnormal urine volumes include ……….., ………….. and …………

7. The routine urinalysis includes ……….., ………….. and ………… examinations.

8. Methods of urine specimens collection include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

9. Types of urine specimens include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

10. The chemical urine preservatives include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

f. ……………………….

g. ……………………….

11. Unacceptable urine collection techniques include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

12. Threshold substances are (definition) ……………………………………...…

………………………………………………………………………………...

13. The mechanism of urine formation include ……….., ……….. and …………

14. The abnormal colors include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

f. ……………………….

g. ……………………….

15. The clinical significance of colorless urine include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

16. The clinical significance of red urine include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

17. The clinical significance of brown urine include:

18. The clinical significance of black urine include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

19. The clinical significance of Oliguria include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

20. The clinical significance of Oliguria include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

f. ……………………….

21. The clinical significance of Oliguria include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

22. Colorless foam indicates the presence of large amount of …………..

23. White stable foam indicates the presence of moderate or large amount of …………. in urine.

24. Yellow foam may appear if sufficient amount of …………. is present.

25. Cloudy urine resulted from the presence of ………….

26. Hazy urine resulted from the presence of …………..

27. Smoky or turbid urine resulted from the presence of …………..

28. Milky urine resulted from the presence of ………….

29. Fruity (sweet) odor of urine is due to …………..

30. Pungent (ammoniacal) odor of urine is due to …………..

31. Offensive odor of urine indicates …………..

32. Mousy odor of the urine of an infant’s urine indicates …………..

33. Specific gravity is (definition) the ratio of the …..………………………...…

………………………………………………………………………………...

34. The normal range of specific gravity for a random specimen is …………..

35. The normal range of specific gravity for a 24-hour specimen is …………..

36. ………………… is a term used to describe a urine with low specific gravity.

37. ………………… is a term used to describe a urine having the same specific gravity of the glomerular filtrate.

38. ………………… is a term used to describe a urine with high specific gravity.

39. The clinical significance of hyposthenuria include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

40. The clinical significance of hypersthenuria include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….

f. ……………………….

g. ……………………….

41. The methods used for measurement of specific gravity include:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

42. Factors affecting urinary pH are:

a. ……………………….

b. ……………………….

c. ……………………….

d. ……………………….

e. ……………………….



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